Uch..... akhirnya selesai juga sertifikasi CCNA ! kepala kayaknya hampir pecah ! tapi syukur dech udah selesai ! buat temen-temen yang lagi kebingungan ngerjain CCNA ! neh aku upload jawabannya CCNA 1 moga aja bermanfaat !
Skill Review
1. Which power of ten does the metric prefix kilo represent?
zero
* third
sixth
ninth
2. What are the differences between binary and decimal numbers? (Choose two.)
Decimal numbers are based on powers of 1 and binary numbers are based on powers of 2.
* Binary numbers are based on powers of 2 and decimal numbers are based on powers of 10.
* Computers use binary numbers and people normally use decimal numbers.
Numbers typed on a keyboard are entered as binary and converted to decimal by the computer.
Binary numbers consist of three states: on, off, null. Decimal numbers do not have states.
3. What numbers and letters represent all possible hexadecimal characters?
0 - 9, A - E
0 - 10, A - E
1 - 9, A - F
* 0 - 9, A - F
1 - 10, A - F
4. What is the result of subtracting 192 from 256?
192
226
54
154
164
* 64
5. What is the result of a number (x) raised to a specific power (n)?
n multiplied by itself x times
* x multiplied by itself n times
n added to itself x times
x added to itself n times
6. A cable installation company has a project that requires 350 faceplates, but the company has only 212 on hand. How many faceplates need to be ordered?
148
140
* 138
134
124
7. A cable installer is required to install six data cable runs. Each run requires a cable that is 25 meters in length. What is the total length of cable the installer will need?
110 m
125 m
140 m
* 150 m
175 m
250 m
8. The area of a space can be calculated by multiplying length times width. What is the area of a room that is 125 feet long and 25 feet wide?
2975 sq. ft
3000 sq. ft
3100 sq. ft
* 3125 sq. ft
9. When clicked, which icon will open a web browser?
* 1
2
3
4
10. In which location should the URL http://cisco.netacad.net be typed in order to go to the Academy website?
* 1
2
3
11. Which programs are most appropriate to use to access the URL http://www.cisco.com? (Choose two.)
Notepad
* Internet Explorer
Microsoft Word
* Netscape Navigator
Excel
PowerPoint
12. Refer to the exhibit. What would be the effect of typing linksys.com in the box labeled 1 and then pressing the enter key?
The browser will display an error message.
* The browser will display the web page at the address http://www.linksys.com.
The address http://linksys.com will be added to the list of "Favorites."
The browser will initiate a new e-mail message addressed to cisco.netacad.net and prompt to begin composing the message text.
13. A computer user has just opened a new file and needs to save and name it to the hard drive of a Windows XP computer before proceeding to work. Which command sequences will accomplish the task? (Choose two.)
* Select File from the top menu bar, then select Save As.
Use the Ctrl key and the F8 key to display the Save As dialog box.
* Use the Ctrl key and the S key to display the Save As dialog box.
Use the Ctrl key and the C key to save the file.
Use the Ctrl key and the V key to save the file.
14. A user must locate the website for The Association of Research Libraries, but does not know the URL address. What is the best website to use to search for this address?
http://www.cisco.com
* http://www.google.com
http://www.microsoft.com
http://www.windows.com
15. Refer to the exhibit. Which command produced the output displayed on the Windows XP computer?
nbtstat -n
arp -a
* ipconfig /all
winipcfg
16. Which command can be used to display the current IP address and subnet mask of a Windows XP computer?
arp -a
* ipconfig
nbtstat -s
winipcfg
17. Which command can be used to test connectivity between two computers?
ipconfig
* ping
winipcfg
ifconfig
nbtstst -s
18. Which of these is the correct format for an IP address?
www.cisco.com
00-90-4B-49-A3-5D
* 172.16.21.210
255.255.255.0
19. A technician has been asked to install a new hard drive in a computer to increase the storage capacity. Other than the new hard drive and software, what tool should be taken to the user's office to perform the installation?
* screwdriver
wire strippers
wire cutters
pliers
20. Refer to the exhibit. Which tool is shown in the exhibit?
phillips screwdriver
* flat blade screwdriver
star tipped screwdriver
offset screwdriver
21. Refer to the exhibit. Which tool is shown in the exhibit?
pliers
flat blade screwdriver
* phillips screwdriver
diagonal cutters
22. A network administrator needs to type a document in Notepad. How can the network administrator find the Notepad program on a Windows XP computer? (Choose two.)
Choose Start > Programs > Communications >Notepad.
Choose Start > Programs > Notepad.
* Choose Start > Programs > Accessories > Notepad.
Choose Start > Notepad.
* Choose Start > Run >, then type Notepad in the Run dialog box.
Choose Start > Startup > Notepad.
23. A network administrator is configuring a static IP address using the numeric key pad. When keying the address using the numeric key pad keys, mostly alpha letters are displayed. What could be the problem?
The Ctrl key is not being held down when the numbers from the keypad are being entered.
* The Num Lock key is off.
The F8 key is not being held down when the numbers from the keypad are being entered.
The Caps Lock key needs to be on.
Chap 1
1. Why were TCP/IP protocols developed?
To insure that error correction of each packet takes place.
* To allow cooperating computers to share resources across a network.
To allocate resources that are needed for operating a computer on a LAN.
To determine the "best path" decision making when forwarding packets of data.
2. Which of the following are functions of a web browser without the addition of plug-ins? (Choose three.)
updates IRQ's
* receives information
* requests information
contacts web servers
* displays flash animation
displays Quicktime movies
3. What is the numeric base of hexadecimal numbers?
Base 2
Base 8
Base 10
* Base 16
Base 32
4. In an 8 bit binary number, what is the total number of combinations of the eight bits?
128
254
255
* 256
512
1024
5. Convert the decimal number 231 into its binary equivalent. Select the correct answer from the list below.
11110010
11011011
11110110
* 11100111
11100101
11101110
6. Convert the hexadecimal number CD into its base 10 equivalent. Select the correct answer from the list below.
197
199
201
203
* 205
207
7. Convert the hexadecimal number 19 into its base 10 equivalent. Select the correct answer from the list below.
19
91
52
* 25
36
63
8. Which of the following are popular web browsers? (Choose two.)
Acrobat
* Internet Explorer
Macromedia Flash
* Netscape Navigator
Quicktime
World Wide Web
9. Which of the following are valid hexadecimal numbers? (Choose three.)
* DEF3
1G45
* 1F35
DH3F
* 453
X35F
10. What are the requirements for an Internet connection? (Choose three.)
remote host
* physical connection
* logical connection
firewall
* application
11. Which of the following interprets the data and displays the information in an understandable form for the user to see?
* application
protocol stack
remote devices
logical connection
physical connection
12. Which of the following are considered to be "always on" services? (Choose two.)
* DSL
ISDN
56kbps
* cable modem
13. Which of the following will test the internal loopback of a node?
ping 10.10.10.1
ping 192.168.1.1
* ping 127.0.0.1
ping 223.223.223.223
ping 255.255.255.255
14. If you perform a Boolean AND on the IP address 172.16.20.23 using the subnet mask of 255.255.248.0, which of the following is the subnetwork address?
172.16.0.0
* 172.16.16.0
172.16.20.0
172.16.20.16
172.16.24.0
15. Which specialized equipment is used to make a physical connection from a PC to a network? (Choose two.)
router
* modem
CD Rom
* network interface card
16. When purchasing a NIC for a computer, which of the following factors need to be considered? (Choose three.)
* protocols
* system bus
brand of PC
web browser
* type of media used on the network
17. Which of the following describes a network interface card?
large circuit board that contains sockets for expansion cards
interface card capable of transferring more than one bit simultaneously and is used to connect external devices
* interface card inserted into a computer so that the computer can be connected to a network
interface card that can be used for parallel communication in which only 1 bit is transmitted at a time
18. Which statements best describe a physical connection? (Choose two.)
internet standard is TCP/IP
* could utilize modem or NIC
interprets data and displays information
* used to transfer data between PC and local network
19. Which device connects a computer with a telephone line by providing modulation and demodulation of incoming and outgoing data?
NIC
CSU/DSU
router
* modem
telco switch
20. Which phrases describe a byte? (Choose two.)
a single binary digit
* a grouping of eight binary digits
+5 volts of electricity
* a single addressable storage location
the value range from 0 to 127
21. Convert the Base 10 number 116 into its eight bit binary equivalent. Choose the correct answer from the following list:
01111010
01110010
* 01110100
01110110
01110111
01010110
Chap 2
1. Refer to the exhibit. Identify the devices labeled A, B, C, and D in the network physical documentation.
A=bridge, B=switch, C=router, D=hub
* A=bridge, B=hub, C=router, D=switch
A=bridge, B=router, C=hub, D=switch
A=hub, B=bridge, C=router, D=switch
2. The central hub has malfunctioned in the network. As a result, the entire network is down. Which type of physical network topology is implemented?
bus
* star
ring
mesh
3. A switch has failed in the network. As a result, only one segment of the network is down. Which type of physical network topology is implemented?
bus
ring
star
* extended star
4. Which three features apply to LAN connections? (Choose three.)
operate using serial interfaces
* make network connection using a hub
* limited to operation over small geographic areas
provide part-time connectivity to remote services
* typically operate under local administrative control
provide lower bandwidth services compared to WANs
5. What is one advantage of defining network communication by the seven layers of the OSI model?
It increases the bandwidth of a network.
* It makes networking easier to learn and understand.
It eliminates many protocol restrictions.
It increases the throughput of a network.
It reduces the need for testing network connectivity.
6. What makes it easier for different networking vendors to design software and hardware that will interoperate?
* OSI model
proprietary designs
IP addressing scheme
standard logical topologies
standard physical topologies
7. Which term describes the process of adding headers to data as it moves down OSI layers?
division
encoding
separation
segmentation
* encapsulation
8. What is the term used to describe the transport layer protocol data unit?
bits
packets
* segments
frames
data streams
9. Which of the following are layers of the TCP/IP model? (Choose three.)
* Application
Physical
* Internet
* Network Access
Presentation
10. Which of the following are data link layer encapsulation details? (Choose two.)
* A header and trailer are added.
Data is converted into packets.
* Packets are packaged into frames.
Frames are divided into segments.
Packets are changed into bits for Internet travel.
11. Which layer of the OSI model provides network services to processes in electronic mail and file transfer programs?
data link
transport
network
* application
12. Which two features apply to WAN connections? (Choose two.)
* operate using serial interfaces
make network connection using a hub
limited to operation over small geographic areas
typically operate under local administrative control
* provide lower bandwidth services compared to LANs
13. Which of the following are ways that bandwidth is commonly measured? (Choose three.)
GHzps
* kbps
* Mbps
Nbps
MHzps
* Gbps
14. Refer to the following list. Choose the correct order of data encapsulation when a device sends information. segments bits packetsdata frames
1 - 3 - 5 - 4 - 2
2 - 1 - 3 - 5 - 4
2 - 4 - 3 - 5 - 1
4 - 3 - 1 - 2 - 5
* 4 - 1 - 3 - 5 - 2
3 - 5 - 1 - 2 - 4
15. Which of the following are factors that determine throughput? (Choose two.)
types of passwords used on servers
type of Layer 3 protocol used
* network topology
width of the network cable
* number of users on the network
16. Refer to the exhibit. Which column shows the correct sequence of OSI model layers?
A
B
C
* D
17. Which layer of the OSI model provides connectivity and path selection between two end systems where routing occurs?
physical layer
data link layer
* network layer
transport layer
18. Which best describes the function of the physical layer?
* Defines the electrical and functional specifications for the link between end systems.
Provides reliable transit of data across a physical link.
Provides connectivity and path selection between two end systems.
Concerned with physical addressing, network topology and media access.
Chap 3
1. What are two advantages of using UTP cable in a networking environment? (Choose two.)
is stiffer than STP
* is less expensive than fiber
* is easier to install than coaxial
provides longer distances than coaxial provides
is less susceptible to outside noise sources than fiber is
2. What are two advantages of using fiber-optic cabling instead of UTP? (Choose two.)
lower cost
easer to install
* allows longer distances
* less effected by external signals
easier to terminate the cable ends
3. What is the difference between a wireless NIC and an Ethernet NIC?
The Ethernet NIC operates at 100 Mbps, whereas a wireless NIC operates at 10 Mbps.
The Ethernet NIC uses a PCI expansion slot, and a wireless NIC cannot use an expansion slot.
The wireless NIC uses CSMA/CA, whereas a Ethernet NIC uses token passing as an access method.
* The wireless NIC associates to an access point, and an Ethernet NIC attaches to a hub or switch using a cable.
The Ethernet NIC attaches to a hub or a switch using only fiber cabling, and a wireless NIC attaches to a wireless antenna using air as a network medium.
4. Refer to the exhibit. The JacksCo is a small start-up company that took over an office space from another small company that closed. The older company left a room of network equipment behind. An inventory list is shown. As the newly hired network technician, you have been asked to determine which components in the storeroom would be best to use to install a small wireless LAN that currently only needs the employees to be able to share data. Note that the wireless LAN also needs to connect to an existing wired LAN. Which components should you choose?
access point and wireless NICs
* wireless NICs, access point, straight-through cables, and a switch
hub, wireless NICs, two wireless bridges, crossover cables, and an access point
wireless NICs, Ethernet NICs, a switch, an external modem, two wireless bridges
Ethernet NICs, wireless NICs, switch, hub, two wireless bridges, straight-through cables, crossover cables, and a router
5. A company is converting a cabled LAN to a wireless Ethernet LAN. What must be changed on every host on the network?
No changes are required.
Each host will require a new IP address.
* Each host will require an appropriate NIC or adapter.
Each host will require that the operating system be upgraded.
6. Refer to the exhibit. Which answer correctly identifies the pinout of the UTP cables labeled Cable A, Cable B, and Cable C?
A=straight, B=rollover, C=crossover
A=rollover, B=crossover, C=straight
A=crossover, B=straight, C=straight
* A=crossover, B=straight, C=rollover
A=straight, B=crossover, C=rollover
A=rollover, B=straight, C=crossover
7. What factors should be considered when selecting the appropriate cable for connecting a PC to a network? (Choose two.)
type of system bus
motherboard model
* distance of cable run
* speed of transmission
computer manufacturer
8. Which Ethernet implementation requires the signal on the media to be boosted at a maximum distance of 100 meters?
10BASE2
10BASE5
* 100BASE-T
100BASE-FX
1000BASE-CX
9. When is a straight-through cable used in a network?
when configuring a router
when connecting a host to a host
* when connecting a switch to a router
when connecting one switch to another switch
10. What type of cable is used to make an Ethernet connection between a host and a LAN switch?
console
rollover
crossover
* straight-through
11. Which of the following are used for data communication signals? (Choose three.)
* light patterns
* electrical voltages
controlled air pulses
mixed media impulses
magnetized fluid wave
* modulated electromagnetic waves
12. What does UTP cable rely on to reduce signal degradation caused by EMI and RFI?
shielding
magnetism
* cancellation
insulation
properly grounded connections
RJ-45 connectors
13. Select the characteristics specified by 10BaseT. (Choose three.)
* twisted pair cable
T style connectors
* baseband transmission
10 gigabits per second data rate
* 10 megabits per second data rate
decimal encoded data transmission
14. Refer to the exhibit. What type of cable connects the two routers together without any intermediary device?
console
rollover
* crossover
straight-through
15. Which cable connectors are used to connect a cable from a router's console port to a PC? (Choose two.)
RJ-11
RJ-12
* RJ-45
DB-8
* DB-9
DB-10
Chap 4
1. A company needs to extend the LAN to six separate buildings. To limit the amount of signal attenuation on the LAN media, what type of media would be the best to use between the buildings?
air (wireless)
coaxial cable
* fiber
shielded twisted pair
unshielded twisted pair
2. A small company is experiencing difficulties on its LAN. After performing some tests, a technician has determined that the copper media supporting the LAN is experiencing abnormal attenuation. What are two possible causes of the problem? (Choose two.)
* defective connectors
* excessively long cable lengths
use of higher grade cabling
low frequency signals used in the media
network cable runs isolated from other cables
3. What is a cause of crosstalk in UTP cable?
cable pairs that are shorted
cable pairs crossed during termination
cabling runs installed in separate conduit
* cable pairs that are untwisted because of poor termination of the cable
4. Which of the following describes frequency?
length of each wave
height of each wave
* number of cycles each second
amount of time between each wave
5. How are binary ones and zeros represented in fiber optic installations? (Choose two.)
+5 volts/-5 volts
0 volts/5 volts
* light/no light
high to low electrical transition
low to high electrical transition
* increasing/decreasing light intensity
6. What factors need to be considered to limit the amount of signal attenuation in Ethernet cable runs? (Choose two.)
type of users
number of users
* length of cable
type of electrical equipment
* installation of connectors on the cable
7. Which of the following are detected by the wire map test? (Choose three.)
near-end crosstalk (NEXT)
* opens
propagation delay
return loss
* reversed-pair faults
* short circuits
8. To ensure reliable LAN communications, what should a technician be looking for when attaching connectors to the ends of UTP cable?
that the white-orange/orange pair is attached first
* that the wire pairs remain twisted as much as possible
that one end of the shield is properly ground but not the other
that 50 ohm termination resistors are on both ends
9. What conditions are described when transmission signals from one wire pair affects another wire pair? (Choose two.)
* noise
resistance mismatch
jitter
* crosstalk
attenuation
10. What is expected when crosstalk is present in networks with higher transmission frequencies? (Choose two.)
jitter
* increase in crosstalk
higher signal attenuation
increases in cancellation effect
* destruction of more of the data signal
Chap 5
1. What device is used to connect hosts to an Ethernet LAN and requires a straight-through UTP cable between the hosts and this device?
NIC
router
* switch
server
2. Users with systems that are attached to a hub are complaining about poor response time. What device could replace the hub and provide immediate response time improvement?
router
* switch
bridge
repeater
3. Refer to the exhibit. How many collision domains exist in the network?
1
* 2
4
7
8
4. At which layer of the OSI model does the MAC address of a NIC reside?
physical
application
network
transport
* data link
session
5. Which statement describes a typical use of Gigabit Ethernet?
to provide high-speed desktop connectivity for average users
to provide connectivity to low to medium volume applications
to provide medium volume connectivity to workgroup servers
* to provide high-speed connectivity for backbones and cross connects
6. Refer to the exhibit. A technician measured the lengths of the CAT 5e structured cable runs in the exhibit. How should the technician evaluate the cabling shown in the diagram to the network administrator?
All cabling to work areas are within specifications.
Station A and B may experience intermittent problems because the length exceeds the recommended standard.
* Station B may experience intermittent problems because the length exceeds the recommended standard.
Station C may experience intermittent network connectivity because the length is less than the recommended standard.
Station A and B will have intermittent problems because the length exceeds the recommended standard.
Station C will not have network connectivity because the length is less than the recommended standard.
7. What is the most common type of cabling used in LANs?
STP
* UTP
coax
fiber
8. In which situations would a crossover cable be used to connect devices in a network? (Choose two.)
switch to PC
* switch to hub
switch to router
switch to server
* switch to switch
9. Refer to the exhibit. What is the appropriate cable to use at each of the numbered network connections?
1-crossover; 2-straight-through; 3-crossover; 4-straight-through
1-straight-through; 2-crossover; 3-straight-through; 4-straight-through
1-straight-through; 2-crossover; 3-crossover; 4-straight-through
* 1-rollover; 2-crossover; 3-straight-through; 4-straight-through
1-rollover; 2-straight-through; 3-straight-through; 4-straight-through
10. The ends of a UTP cable are shown in the exhibit. Which cable configuration is shown?
crossover
rollover
reversed-pair
* straight-through
split-pair
console
11. Which of the following are benefits of a wireless network? (Choose two.)
higher data speeds
better security
* mobility
less expensive NIC cards
* no need to run cables to hosts
12. The ends of a UTP cable are shown in the exhibit. Which cable configuration is shown?
console
* crossover
rollover
reversed-pair
split-pair
straight-through
13. Which two devices are considered OSI Layer 1 devices? (Choose two.)
* hubs
routers
bridges
switches
* repeaters
14. Which statement is accurate about a WAN link?
* The link transmits data serially.
The link uses a maximum distance of 100 meters.
The link uses the same transmission rate as all other WAN links use.
The link uses the same standardized connector style that is used for all WAN technologies.
15. Which items in the exhibit are DTE devices?
A and B
B and C
C and D
* A and D
A, B, C, and D
16. Which function is a unique responsibility of the DCE devices shown in the exhibit?
transmission of data
reception of data
* clocking for the synchronous link
noise cancellation in transmitted data
17. What type of cable would be used to make the connection between the console port of a router and a workstation?
crossover
* rollover
straight-through
patch
18. What is characteristic of the operation of a hub?
selectively drops packets that represent potential security risks
* forwards a frame out all interfaces except the inbound interface
based on IP address, dynamically learns the interfaces to which all devices are attached
upon power on, queries the devices on all interface to learn the MAC addresses of the attached devices
transmits a frame to the specific interface to which the device with the MAC destination address is attached
19. Which of the following are benefits of peer-to-peer networks? (Choose three.)
centralized security
* easy to create
very scalable
* no centralized equipment required
* centralized administrator not required
centralized control of assets
20. Which address does a bridge use to make filtering and switching decisions?
source MAC
source IP
* destination MAC
destination IP
network IP address
Chap 6
1. Refer to the exhibit. Host A is communicating with host F. What happens to a frame sent from host A to host F as it travels over the Ethernet segments?
The frame format is modified as it passes through each switch.
* The frame format remains the same across each Ethernet segment.
The frame format is modified as the media speed changed at switch B and switch E.
The frame format is modified as the media material changes between copper and fiber at switch C and switch D.
2. How many hexadecimal digits are in a MAC address?
2
8
* 12
16
32
3. What are three functions of a NIC in a PC? (Choose three.)
* A NIC connects the PC to the network media.
* A NIC detects collisions on the Ethernet segment.
A NIC checks the formatting of data before it is transmitted.
* A NIC passes the contents of selected frames to the upper OSI layers.
A NIC acknowledges and retransmits data that was not received properly.
A NIC discards frames when the destination IP address does not match the local host.
4. At what layer of the OSI model does a MAC address reside?
1
* 2
3
4
7
5. A router has an Ethernet, Token Ring, serial, and ISDN interface. Which interfaces will have a MAC address?
serial and ISDN interfaces
* Ethernet and Token Ring interfaces
Ethernet and ISDN interfaces
Token Ring and serial interfaces
6. In an Ethernet LAN, how does the NIC know when it can transmit data?
An Ethernet NIC transmits data as soon as the frame is received.
An Ethernet NIC transmits data as soon as the NIC receives a token.
An Ethernet NIC transmits data when it senses a collision.
* An Ethernet NIC transmits data after listening for the absence of a signal on the media.
7. Which characteristics describe carrier sense multiple access collision detect (CSMA/CD)? (Choose three.)
reliable
point-to-point
* nondeterministic
connection-oriented
* collision environment
* first-come, first-served approach
8. Which two devices can provide full-duplex Ethernet connections? (Choose two.)
hub
modem
repeater
* NIC
* Layer 2 switch
9. On a local area network, one workstation can send data on the line while it is receiving data. What type of data transfer does this describe?
hybrid
half duplex
* full duplex
multilink
10. Refer to the exhibit. The small office network shown in the exhibit consists of four computers connected through a hub. Which configuration would cause collisions and errors on the network?
autonegotiation
FastEthernet
peer-to-peer shared resources
* administratively configured full duplex
11. Refer to the exhibit. The switch and workstation are administratively configured for full-duplex operation. Which statement accurately reflects the operation of this link?
* No collisions will occur on this link.
Only one of the devices can transmit at a time.
The switch will have priority for transmitting data.
The devices will default back to half duplex if excessive collisions occur.
12. Refer to the exhibit. All hosts are in listen mode. Host 1 and Host 4 both transmit data at the same time. How do the hosts respond on the network? (Choose two.)
Hosts 1 and 4 may be operating full duplex so no collision will exist.
The hub will block the port connected to Host 4 to prevent a collision.
* After the end of the jam signal, Hosts 1, 2, 3, and 4 invoke a backoff algorithm.
When the four hosts detect the collision, Hosts 1, 2, 3, and 4 generate a jam signal.
Hosts 1 and 4 are assigned shorter backoff values to provide them priority to access the media.
* If a host has data to transmit after the backoff period of that host, the host checks to determine if the line is idle, before transmitting.
13. When a collision occurs in a network using CSMA/CD, how do hosts with data to transmit respond after the backoff period has expired?
* The hosts return to a listen-before-transmit mode.
The hosts creating the collision have priority to send data.
The hosts creating the collision retransmit the last 16 frames.
The hosts extend their delay period to allow for rapid transmission.
14. Which statement describes how CSMA/CD on an Ethernet segment manages the retransmission of frames after a collision occurs?
The first device to detect the collision has the priority for retransmission.
The device with the lowest MAC address determines the retransmission priority.
The devices on the network segment hold an election for priority to retransmit data
* The devices transmitting when the collision occurs DO NOT have priority for retransmission.
15. Refer to the exhibit. A technician wants to increase the available bandwidth for the workstation by allowing the switch and the NIC on the workstation to transmit and receive simultaneously. What will permit this?
CSMA/CD
* full-duplex
FastEthernet
crossover cable
16. Why do hosts on an Ethernet segment that experience a collision use a random delay before attempting to transmit a frame?
A random delay is used to ensure a collision-free link.
A random delay value for each device is assigned by the manufacturer.
A standard delay value could not be agreed upon among networking device vendors.
* A random delay helps prevent the stations from experiencing another collision during the transmission.
17. In which two layers of the OSI model does Ethernet function? (Choose two.)
application
session
transport
network
* data link
* physical
18. Which of the following are specified by IEEE standards as sublayers of the OSI data link layer? (Choose two.)
* Logical Link Control
Logical Layer Control
* Media Access Control
Logical Link Communication
Media Access Communication
Physical Access Communication
19. Where does the MAC address originate?
DHCP server database
configured by the administrator
* burned into ROM on the NIC card
network configuration on the computer
included in the creation of the processor chip
Chap 6-7
1. Which of the following are specified by IEEE standards as sublayers of the OSI data link layer? (Choose two.)
* Logical Link Control
Logical Layer Control
* Media Access Control
Logical Link Communication
Media Access Communication
Physical Access Communication
2. Refer to the exhibit. Host A is communicating with host F. What happens to a frame sent from host A to host F as it travels over the Ethernet segments?
The frame format is modified as it passes through each switch.
* The frame format remains the same across each Ethernet segment.
The frame format is modified as the media speed changed at switch B and switch E.
The frame format is modified as the media material changes between copper and fiber at switch C and switch D.
3. In which two layers of the OSI model does Ethernet function? (Choose two.)
application
session
transport
network
* data link
* physical
4. Where does the MAC address originate?
DHCP server database
configured by the administrator
* burned into ROM on the NIC card
network configuration on the computer
included in the creation of the processor chip
5. At what layer of the OSI model does a MAC address reside?
1
* 2
3
4
7
6. A router has an Ethernet, Token Ring, serial, and ISDN interface. Which interfaces will have a MAC address?
serial and ISDN interfaces
* Ethernet and Token Ring interfaces
Ethernet and ISDN interfaces
Token Ring and serial interfaces
7. Which two devices can provide full-duplex Ethernet connections? (Choose two.)
hub
modem
repeater
* NIC
* Layer 2 switch
8. Refer to the exhibit. The small office network shown in the exhibit consists of four computers connected through a hub. Which configuration would cause collisions and errors on the network?
autonegotiation
FastEthernet
peer-to-peer shared resources
* administratively configured full duplex
9. Refer to the exhibit. The switch and workstation are administratively configured for full-duplex operation. Which statement accurately reflects the operation of this link?
* No collisions will occur on this link.
Only one of the devices can transmit at a time.
The switch will have priority for transmitting data.
The devices will default back to half duplex if excessive collisions occur.
10. What are three functions of a NIC in a PC? (Choose three.)
* A NIC connects the PC to the network media.
* A NIC detects collisions on the Ethernet segment.
A NIC checks the formatting of data before it is transmitted.
* A NIC passes the contents of selected frames to the upper OSI layers.
A NIC acknowledges and retransmits data that was not received properly.
A NIC discards frames when the destination IP address does not match the local host.
11. In an Ethernet LAN, how does the NIC know when it can transmit data?
An Ethernet NIC transmits data as soon as the frame is received.
An Ethernet NIC transmits data as soon as the NIC receives a token.
An Ethernet NIC transmits data when it senses a collision.
* An Ethernet NIC transmits data after listening for the absence of a signal on the media.
12. Refer to the exhibit. All hosts are in listen mode. Host 1 and Host 4 both transmit data at the same time. How do the hosts respond on the network? (Choose two.)
Hosts 1 and 4 may be operating full duplex so no collision will exist.
The hub will block the port connected to Host 4 to prevent a collision.
* After the end of the jam signal, Hosts 1, 2, 3, and 4 invoke a backoff algorithm.
When the four hosts detect the collision, Hosts 1, 2, 3, and 4 generate a jam signal.
Hosts 1 and 4 are assigned shorter backoff values to provide them priority to access the media.
* If a host has data to transmit after the backoff period of that host, the host checks to determine if the line is idle, before transmitting.
13. Which statement describes how CSMA/CD on an Ethernet segment manages the retransmission of frames after a collision occurs?
The first device to detect the collision has the priority for retransmission.
The device with the lowest MAC address determines the retransmission priority.
The devices on the network segment hold an election for priority to retransmit data
* The devices transmitting when the collision occurs DO NOT have priority for retransmission.
14. What is the maximum distance that 10BASE-T will transmit data before signal attenuation affects the data delivery?
* 100 meters
185 meters
300 meters
500 meters
15. Which of the following are Fast Ethernet technologies? (Choose two.)
100BASE-5
100BASE2
1000BASE-F
* 100BASE-FX
* 100BASE-TX
16. At which OSI layer do the differences between standard Ethernet, Fast Ethernet and Gigabit Ethernet occur?
* physical layer
data link layer
network layer
transport layer
17. How does 1000BASE-T use the UTP wire pairs to accomplish transmission?
two pairs are used to transmit and two pairs are used to receive
one pair is used to transmit, one pair is used to receive, one pair is used for clocking, and one pair is used for error correction
* all four pairs are used in parallel by both hosts to transmit and receive simultaneously
two pairs of wires are used as in 10BASE-T and 100BASE-TX
18. Which statements describe Gigabit Ethernet technology? (Choose two.)
operates at 100 Mbps
* typically used for backbone cabling
requires shielded twisted-pair cabling
* can be implemented over copper and fiber
primarily used between workstations option
19. Which media types can be used in an implementation of a 10BASE-T network? (Choose three.)
* Category 5 UTP
* Category 5e UTP
* Category 3 UTP
coaxial cable
multi-mode fiber
single mode fiber
20. Which of the following Ethernet technologies are considered legacy Ethernet? (Choose three.)
* 10BASE2
* 10BASE5
* 10BASE-T
100BASE-T
100BASE-FX
100BASE-TX
Chap 7
1. Which Ethernet standard does the IEEE 802.3 standard recommend for backbone installations?
10BASE-T
100BASE-T
100BASE-FX
* 1000BASE-LX
2. Which statements describe Gigabit Ethernet technology? (Choose two.)
operates at 100 Mbps
* typically used for backbone cabling
requires shielded twisted-pair cabling
* can be implemented over copper and fiber
primarily used between workstations option
3. Which of the following are Fast Ethernet technologies? (Choose two.)
100BASE-5
100BASE2
1000BASE-F
* 100BASE-FX
* 100BASE-TX
4. To make sure timing limitations are not violated when implementing a 10 Mbps Ethernet network involving hubs or repeaters, a technician should adhere to which rule?
the 4-5-3 rule
the 6-4-2 rule
the 3-4-5 rule
* the 5-4-3 rule
5. At which OSI layer do the differences between standard Ethernet, Fast Ethernet and Gigabit Ethernet occur?
* physical layer
data link layer
network layer
transport layer
6. How does 1000BASE-T use the UTP wire pairs to accomplish transmission?
two pairs are used to transmit and two pairs are used to receive
one pair is used to transmit, one pair is used to receive, one pair is used for clocking, and one pair is used for error correction
* all four pairs are used in parallel by both hosts to transmit and receive simultaneously
two pairs of wires are used as in 10BASE-T and 100BASE-TX
7. What RJ-45 pins are unused when transmitting and receiving data in an Ethernet 100BASE-T Category 5 UTP cable? (Choose two.)
1 and 2
3 and 6
* 4 and 5
* 7 and 8
8. What is the maximum distance that 10BASE-T will transmit data before signal attenuation affects the data delivery?
* 100 meters
185 meters
300 meters
500 meters
9. Which media types can be used in an implementation of a 10BASE-T network? (Choose three.)
* Category 5 UTP
* Category 5e UTP
* Category 3 UTP
coaxial cable
multi-mode fiber
single mode fiber
10. Which of the following Ethernet technologies are considered legacy Ethernet? (Choose three.)
* 10BASE2
* 10BASE5
* 10BASE-T
100BASE-T
100BASE-FX
100BASE-TX
Chap 8
1. What is characteristic of the operation of a Layer 2 switch?
selectively drops packets that represent potential security risks
dynamically learns the interfaces to which all devices are attached based on IP address
during switch initialization, queries the devices on all interfaces to learn the MAC addresses of the attached devices
* uses the destination MAC address to determine the specific interface to forward a frame
2. Two newly hired technicians are discussing the implementation of a new LAN. One technician proposes installing a hub. The other technician advises installing a switch. Which statements are true about the differences between a hub and a switch? (Choose two.)
A hub operates at Layer 2 of the OSI model.
A hub reduces the number of collisions on a LAN.
A hub works at a higher OSI model layer than a switch.
* A switch provides more throughput to hosts on a LAN.
* A switch provides a collision-free environment on a LAN.
The number of collisions on a LAN are the same whether a hub or a switch is used.
3. Refer to the exhibit. Forty-eight workstations are connected to a hub. The users are able to connect to the network, but access is very slow. An entry-level technician replaces the 10 Mbps hub with 100 Mbps hub but the problem still exists. What is the most economical way to correct the problem?
* Replace the hub with a switch.
Replace the hub with a router.
Replace the hub with a 1 Gbps hub.
Replace the hub with a 10 Mbps fiber hub.
4. Exhibited is a portion of ABC Company internetwork. Which of the connections can be full duplex?
segments 1 and 2
segment 2
segments 3 and 4
* segments 2, 3, and 4
segments 1, 2, 3, and 4
5. Refer to the exhibit. The switch and the hub have default configurations, and the switch has built its CAM table. Which of the hosts will receive the data when workstation A sends a unicast packet to workstation C?
* workstation C
workstations B and C
workstations B, C, and the E0 interface of the router
workstations B, C, D, E, F, and the E0 interface of the router
6. An administrator would like to connect ten workstations on a 192.168.0.0/24 network. The device selected by the administrator must allow connectivity between hosts without sharing bandwidth. Which device would be appropriate?
hub
router
* switch
repeater
7. Which networking devices use the MAC address to make forwarding decisions? (Choose two.)
NIC
* bridge
hub
* switch
repeater
8. Which devices are primarily used to extend cable segments within a collision domain by regenerating the data signals? (Choose two.)
switch
* repeater
router
bridge
* hub
9. Which devices will create multiple collision domains in an Ethernet network? (Choose two.)
NIC
hub
* switch
* router
repeater
10. Refer to the exhibit. How many broadcast domains exist in classroom 240?
* 1
2
5
12
13
15
11. A PC receives a frame. Which situation will cause the NIC on the receiving host to pass the frame contents up the OSI layers to be processed by the PC?
The frame is a runt frame.
* The destination MAC address of the frame is FFFF.FFFF.FFFF.
The transmitting host generated a jam signal during the frame transmission.
The recalculated checksum for the frame does not match the FCS on the frame.
12. A network administrator has a multi-floor LAN to monitor and maintain. Through careful monitoring, the administrator has noticed a large amount of broadcast traffic slowing the network. Which device would you use to best solve this problem?
bridge
hub
* router
transceiver
13. What will a bridge do if it receives a frame with a MAC address that is not within the table?
discard frame
ignore frame
send frame to appropriate port
* send frame to all ports except source port
14. Which networking device reduces the size of both collision domains and broadcast domains?
hub
Layer 2 switch
* router
bridge
repeater
15. What is used to prevent Layer 2 switching loops?
bridging
segmentation
Address Resolution Protocol
* Spanning-Tree Protocol
Chap 9
1. What is the primary responsibility of the transport layer?
allows access to the network media
provides data representation and encoding
selects paths through the network for data to travel
* defines end-to-end connectivity between host applications
2. Why is IP considered a best-effort protocol?
IP detects lost packets.
IP validates the content of the packets.
* IP does not provide acknowledgment of the data delivery.
IP reorders the packet as they arrive at the destination host.
3. Which IPv4 class of addresses provides the most networks?
Class A
Class B
* Class C
Class D
Class E
4. Which IPv4 class provides the highest number of host addresses per network?
* Class A
Class B
Class C
Class D
Class E
5. Which two statements correctly describe the IP address 127.0.0.1? (Choose two.)
* It belongs to the Class A range of addresses.
It belongs to the Class B range of addresses.
It belongs to the Class C range of addresses.
* It is reserved for loopback testing.
It is reserved for multicast group testing.
It is reserved for unicast testing.
6. Refer to the exhibit. The small office LAN shown in the exhibit may eventually be connected to the Internet. According to Cisco best practice, which IP network addresses should be used?
12.0.0.0
172.0.0.0
172.168.0.0
192.32.17.0
* 192.168.67.0
225.1.5.0
7. Why were private IP addresses developed?
to permit dynamic assignment of IP addresses
to permit the duplication of public IP addresses
to minimize the utilization of reserved IP addresses
to permit public IP addresses to be used in private networks
* to address the issue of not enough available public IP addresses
8. Which statement accurately describes public IP addresses?
Public addresses cannot be used within a private network.
* Public IP addresses must be unique across the entire Internet.
Public addresses can be duplicated only within a local network.
Public IP addresses are only required to be unique within the local network.
Network administrators are free to select any public addresses to use for network devices that access the Internet.
9. Which three addresses are considered to be private addresses? (Choose three.)
* 10.45.09.23
15.87.234.87
172.32.45.90
* 172.17.78.98
192.169.89.56
* 192.168.45.23
10. Refer to the exhibit. Which devices are recommended to have the IP addresses manually configured?
PC1 and PC2
* all servers
only PC2 Laptop
all hosts and all servers
11. Refer to the exhibit. What is the purpose of the Obtain an IP address automatically option shown in the exhibit?
to configure the computer to use ARP
* to configure the computer to use DHCP
to configure the computer to use a routing protocol
to configure the computer with a statically assigned IP address
12. Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are correct in reference to the output shown? (Choose two.)
The LAN segment is subnetted to allow 254 subnets.
The DNS server for this host is on the same subnet as the host.
* The host automatically obtained the IP addresses 192.168.1.100.
* The host received the IP address from the router on the local LAN segment.
The host is assigned an address of 00-50-8D-F1-EA-8D by the administrator.
13. What is the purpose of a DHCP server on a network?
to resolve MAC addresses to IP addresses
to resolve IP addresses to MAC addresses
to resolve host names to IP addresses
* to assign IP addresses dynamically to hosts
to assign a MAC address to a host
14. Refer to the exhibit. Based on the information shown, which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
An ARP request must be used to obtain an address that is placed in the ARP table.
Frames from other hosts in the network to this host will use a destination address of 00-06-25-25-6e-5d.
The only remote locations that can be reached from this host are 192.168.1.97 and 192.168.1.254.
* If a packet is sent to a network device other than 192.168.1.97 and 192.168.1.254, an ARP request must be used.
* If the computer with the IP address of 192.168.1.94 sends a packet to the device with the IP address 192.168.1.97, no ARP request is required.
15. What are two facts about how ARP resolves an IP address to a MAC address? (Choose two.)
The originating host dynamically issues an arp –a command to obtain the destination MAC address.
* The originating host broadcasts an ARP request packet and each host in a local network receives this packet.
The originating host dynamically issues an icmp echo request command to obtain the destination MAC address.
* The host with the specified destination IP address sends an ARP reply packet containing its MAC address back to the originating host.
The host with the specified destination IP address sends an icmp echo reply packet to the originating host with its MAC address.
16. When a host has an empty ARP cache, what is the next step the host will take to find the destination MAC address of a remote host?
sends an ARP request as a unicast to the server
sends an ARP request as a unicast to the destination
* sends an ARP request as a broadcast to all hosts in the local network
sends an ARP request as a unicast to the default gateway
17. Which TCP/IP model layer supports both LAN and WAN technologies?
* network access layer
internet layer
transport layer
application layer
18. How many usable hosts are available given a Class C IP address with the default subnet mask?
* 254
255
256
510
511
512
19. Which subnet mask would be assigned to the network address of 192.168.32.0 to provide 254 useable host addresses per subnetwork?
255.255.0.0
* 255.255.255.0
255.255.254.0
255.255.248.0
20. What is the network broadcast address for a Class C address of 192.168.32.0 with the default subnet mask?
192.168.0.0
192.168.0.255
192.168.32.0
192.168.32.254
* 192.168.32.255
Chap 9-10
1. What is the primary responsibility of the transport layer?
allows access to the network media
provides data representation and encoding
selects paths through the network for data to travel
* defines end-to-end connectivity between host applications
2. Why is IP considered a best-effort protocol?
IP detects lost packets.
IP validates the content of the packets.
* IP does not provide acknowledgment of the data delivery.
IP reorders the packet as they arrive at the destination host.
3. Which two statements correctly describe the IP address 127.0.0.1? (Choose two.)
* It belongs to the Class A range of addresses.
It belongs to the Class B range of addresses.
It belongs to the Class C range of addresses.
* It is reserved for loopback testing.
It is reserved for multicast group testing.
It is reserved for unicast testing.
4. Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are correct in reference to the output shown? (Choose two.)
The LAN segment is subnetted to allow 254 subnets.
The DNS server for this host is on the same subnet as the host.
* The host automatically obtained the IP addresses 192.168.1.100.
* The host received the IP address from the router on the local LAN segment.
The host is assigned an address of 00-50-8D-F1-EA-8D by the administrator.
5. Which three addresses are considered to be private addresses? (Choose three.)
* 10.45.09.23
15.87.234.87
172.32.45.90
* 172.17.78.98
192.169.89.56
* 192.168.45.23
6. What is the purpose of a DHCP server on a network?
to resolve MAC addresses to IP addresses
to resolve IP addresses to MAC addresses
to resolve host names to IP addresses
* to assign IP addresses dynamically to hosts
to assign a MAC address to a host
7. Refer to the exhibit. The small office LAN shown in the exhibit may eventually be connected to the Internet. According to Cisco best practice, which IP network addresses should be used?
12.0.0.0
172.0.0.0
172.168.0.0
192.32.17.0
* 192.168.67.0
225.1.5.0
8. Refer to the exhibit. Which devices are recommended to have the IP addresses manually configured?
PC1 and PC2
* all servers
only PC2 Laptop
all hosts and all servers
9. Refer to the exhibit. Based on the information shown, which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
An ARP request must be used to obtain an address that is placed in the ARP table.
Frames from other hosts in the network to this host will use a destination address of 00-06-25-25-6e-5d.
The only remote locations that can be reached from this host are 192.168.1.97 and 192.168.1.254.
* If a packet is sent to a network device other than 192.168.1.97 and 192.168.1.254, an ARP request must be used.
* If the computer with the IP address of 192.168.1.94 sends a packet to the device with the IP address 192.168.1.97, no ARP request is required.
10. Which TCP/IP model layer supports both LAN and WAN technologies?
* network access layer
internet layer
transport layer
application layer
11. Which subnet mask would be assigned to the network address of 192.168.32.0 to provide 254 useable host addresses per subnetwork?
255.255.0.0
* 255.255.255.0
255.255.254.0
255.255.248.0
12. Refer to the exhibit. Host A pings host B. When R4 accepts the ping into the Ethernet interface, what two pieces of header information are included? (Choose two.)
source IP address: 192.168.10.129
source IP address: BBBB.3333.5677
source MAC address: 5555.AAAA.6666
destination IP address: 192.168.10.33
* destination IP address: 192.168.10.134
* destination MAC address: 9999.DADC.1234
13. What header address information does a router change in the information it receives from an attached Ethernet interface before information is transmitted out another interface?
only the Layer 2 source address
only the Layer 2 destination address
only the Layer 3 source address
only the Layer 3 destination address
* the Layer 2 source and destination address
the Layer 3 source and destination address
14. Host A is connected to the LAN, but it cannot connect to the Internet. The host configuration is shown in the exhibit. What are the two problems with this configuration? (Choose two.)
* The host subnet mask is incorrect.
The host is not configured for subnetting.
The default gateway is a network address.
* The default gateway is on a different network than the host.
The host IP address is on a different network from the Serial interface of the router.
15. An IP network address has been subnetted so that every subnetwork has 14 usable host IP addresses. What is the appropriate subnet mask for the newly created subnetworks?
255.255.255.128
255.255.255.224
* 255.255.255.240
255.255.255.248
255.255.255.252
16. A company is using a Class B IP addressing scheme and expects to need as many as 100 networks. What is the correct subnet mask to use with the network configuration?
255.255.0.0
255.255.240.0
* 255.255.254.0
255.255.255.0
255.255.255.128
255.255.255.192
17. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator has assigned the internetwork of LBMISS an address range of 192.168.10.0. This address range has been subnetted using a /29 mask. In order to accommodate a new building, the technician has decided to use the fifth subnet for configuring the new network. By company policies, the router interface is always assigned the first usable host address and the workgroup server is given the last usable host address. Which configuration should be entered into the IP server properties to get connectivity to the network through the router?
IP address: 192.168.10.38 Subnet mask: 255.255.255.240 Default gateway: 192.168.10.39
IP address: 192.168.10.38 Subnet mask: 255.255.255.240 Default gateway: 192.168.10.33
* IP address: 192.168.10.38 Subnet mask: 255.255.255.248 Default gateway: 192.168.10.33
IP address: 192.168.10.39 Subnet mask: 255.255.255.248 Default gateway: 192.168.10.31
IP address: 192.168.10.254 Subnet mask: 255.255.255.0 Default gateway: 192.168.10.1
18. Refer to the exhibit. A technician is planning an addressing scheme for a branch office as shown in the exhibit. What is the status of the intended network?
The configuration will work as planned.
The subnetwork mask of host A is incorrect.
The default gateway of host A is a network address.
* The addresses on the router LAN interfaces are on the same subnetwork.
The IP address of host A is on a different subnetwork than the subnetwork that the Ethernet router interface is on.
19. Refer to the exhibit. After host 2 is connected to the switch on the LAN, host 2 is unable to communicate with host 1. What is the cause of this problem?
The subnet mask of host 2 is incorrect.
* Host 1 and host 2 are on different networks.
The switch needs an IP address that is not configured.
The router LAN interface and host 1 are on different networks.
The IP address of host 1 is on a different network than is the LAN interface of the router.
20. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is planning the addressing scheme for the LAN using 172.25.14.0/26. The hosts are to be assigned addresses 172.25.14.1 – 172.25.14.25. The LAN interface of the router is to be configured using 172.25.14.63 as the IP address. What would describe this addressing scheme?
The LAN is being addressed properly.
The subnet that is being assigned is not a usable subnet address.
* The router LAN interface is being assigned a broadcast address.
The subnet mask does not allow enough host addresses in a single subnet.
21. Which type of routing allows routers to adapt to network changes?
static routes
* dynamic routing
only default routes
No routing is necessary.
22. How does a router decide where the contents of a received frame should be forwarded?
* by matching destination IP addresses with networks in the routing table
by matching the destination IP address with IP addresses listed in the ARP table
by matching the destination MAC address with MAC addresses listed in the CAM table
by forwarding the frame to all interfaces except the interface on which the frame was received
23. What do switches and routers use to make forwarding decisions?
Switches and routers both use IP addresses.
Switches and routers use both MAC and IP addresses.
Switches use IP addresses. Routers use MAC addresses.
* Switches use MAC addresses. Routers use IP addresses.
Switches use MAC and IP addresses. Routers use IP addresses.
24. Refer to the exhibit. A newly hired technician is testing the connectivity of all hosts by issuing a ping command. The technician notices that a default gateway is not configured on all the hosts, but all hosts have connectivity between hosts, a fact which seems to confuse the technician. How would you explain the connectivity to the technician?
The hosts are detecting the default gateway configured on the hub.
* The hosts are all in one LAN, so default gateway information is not needed.
The hosts in the network only require that one host has a gateway configured.
The hosts in the network would only need a gateway if a switch replaces the hub.
The hosts are using broadcast to reach each other since no gateway is configured.
25. Given a host with the IP address 172.32.65.13 and a default subnet mask, to which network does the host belong?
172.32.65.0
172.32.65.32
* 172.32.0.0
172.32.32.0
Chap10
1. Refer to the exhibit. Host A pings host B. When R4 accepts the ping into the Ethernet interface, what two pieces of header information are included? (Choose two.)
source IP address: 192.168.10.129
source IP address: BBBB.3333.5677
source MAC address: 5555.AAAA.6666
destination IP address: 192.168.10.33
* destination IP address: 192.168.10.134
* destination MAC address: 9999.DADC.1234
2. What header address information does a router change in the information it receives from an attached Ethernet interface before information is transmitted out another interface?
only the Layer 2 source address
only the Layer 2 destination address
only the Layer 3 source address
only the Layer 3 destination address
* the Layer 2 source and destination address
the Layer 3 source and destination address
3. What is the primary purpose of the routing process?
to propagate broadcast messages
to map IP addresses to MAC addresses
to switch traffic to all available interfaces
to map IP addresses to MAC addresses
* to find paths from one network or subnet to another
4. How does a router decide where the contents of a received frame should be forwarded?
* by matching destination IP addresses with networks in the routing table
by matching the destination IP address with IP addresses listed in the ARP table
by matching the destination MAC address with MAC addresses listed in the CAM table
by forwarding the frame to all interfaces except the interface on which the frame was received
5. Refer to the exhibit. A student in the Cisco network class has designed a small office network to enable hosts to access the Internet. What recommendation should the teacher provide to the student in regards to the network design?
Replace the Layer 2 switch with a hub.
* Replace the Layer 2 switch with a router.
Replace the Layer 2 switch with a bridge.
Replace the Layer 2 switch with a transceiver.
6. Which device would add security to a network by not forwarding broadcasts?
hub
* router
switch
bridge
repeater
7. What do switches and routers use to make forwarding decisions?
Switches and routers both use IP addresses.
Switches and routers use both MAC and IP addresses.
Switches use IP addresses. Routers use MAC addresses.
* Switches use MAC addresses. Routers use IP addresses.
Switches use MAC and IP addresses. Routers use IP addresses.
8. At which layer of the OSI model does the device reside that is functioning as the default gateway for hosts on a network?
Layer 1
Layer 2
* Layer 3
Layer 4
Layer 5
Layer 7
9. Which type of routing uses manual entry of information and does not scale well in large internetworks?
interior
exterior
* static
dynamic
10. Which type of routing allows routers to adapt to network changes?
static routes
* dynamic routing
only default routes
No routing is necessary.
11. How does subnetting provide some level of security in a network?
The number of switches must increase.
The collisions prevent the copying of data.
* The broadcasts are contained within a subnet.
The number of host IP addresses is increased.
12. What is the purpose of a subnet mask in a network?
A subnet mask is not necessary when a default gateway is specified.
A subnet mask is required only when bits are borrowed on a network.
* A subnet mask is used to determine in which subnet an IP address belongs.
A subnet mask is used to separate the 48-bit address into the OUI and the vendor serial number.
13. Refer to the exhibit. A newly hired technician is testing the connectivity of all hosts by issuing a ping command. The technician notices that a default gateway is not configured on all the hosts, but all hosts have connectivity between hosts, a fact which seems to confuse the technician. How would you explain the connectivity to the technician?
The hosts are detecting the default gateway configured on the hub.
* The hosts are all in one LAN, so default gateway information is not needed.
The hosts in the network only require that one host has a gateway configured.
The hosts in the network would only need a gateway if a switch replaces the hub.
The hosts are using broadcast to reach each other since no gateway is configured.
14. A company is using a Class B IP addressing scheme and expects to need as many as 100 networks. What is the correct subnet mask to use with the network configuration?
255.255.0.0
255.255.240.0
* 255.255.254.0
255.255.255.0
255.255.255.128
255.255.255.192
15. A company is planning to subnet its network for a maximum of 27 hosts. Which subnet mask would provide the needed hosts and leave the fewest unused addresses in each subnet?
255.255.255.0
255.255.255.192
* 255.255.255.224
255.255.255.240
255.255.255.248
16. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator has assigned the internetwork of LBMISS an address range of 192.168.10.0. This address range has been subnetted using a /29 mask. In order to accommodate a new building, the technician has decided to use the fifth subnet for configuring the new network. By company policies, the router interface is always assigned the first usable host address and the workgroup server is given the last usable host address. Which configuration should be entered into the IP server properties to get connectivity to the network through the router?
IP address: 192.168.10.38 Subnet mask: 255.255.255.240 Default gateway: 192.168.10.39
IP address: 192.168.10.38 Subnet mask: 255.255.255.240 Default gateway: 192.168.10.33
* IP address: 192.168.10.38 Subnet mask: 255.255.255.248 Default gateway: 192.168.10.33
IP address: 192.168.10.39 Subnet mask: 255.255.255.248 Default gateway: 192.168.10.31
IP address: 192.168.10.254 Subnet mask: 255.255.255.0 Default gateway: 192.168.10.1
17. Refer to the exhibit. Host A is connected to the LAN, but it cannot get access to any resources on the Internet. The configuration of the host is shown in the exhibit. What could be the cause of the problem?
The host subnet mask is incorrect.
The default gateway is a network address.
The default gateway is a broadcast address.
* The default gateway is on a different subnet from the host.
18. Host A is connected to the LAN, but it cannot connect to the Internet. The host configuration is shown in the exhibit. What are the two problems with this configuration? (Choose two.)
* The host subnet mask is incorrect.
The host is not configured for subnetting.
The default gateway is a network address.
* The default gateway is on a different network than the host.
The host IP address is on a different network from the Serial interface of the router.
19. Refer to the exhibit. A technician is planning an addressing scheme for a branch office as shown in the exhibit. What is the status of the intended network?
The configuration will work as planned.
The subnetwork mask of host A is incorrect.
The default gateway of host A is a network address.
* The addresses on the router LAN interfaces are on the same subnetwork.
The IP address of host A is on a different subnetwork than the subnetwork that the Ethernet router interface is on.
20. Refer to the exhibit. After host 2 is connected to the switch on the LAN, host 2 is unable to communicate with host 1. What is the cause of this problem?
The subnet mask of host 2 is incorrect.
* Host 1 and host 2 are on different networks.
The switch needs an IP address that is not configured.
The router LAN interface and host 1 are on different networks.
The IP address of host 1 is on a different network than is the LAN interface of the router.
21. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is planning the addressing scheme for the LAN using 172.25.14.0/26. The hosts are to be assigned addresses 172.25.14.1 – 172.25.14.25. The LAN interface of the router is to be configured using 172.25.14.63 as the IP address. What would describe this addressing scheme?
The LAN is being addressed properly.
The subnet that is being assigned is not a usable subnet address.
* The router LAN interface is being assigned a broadcast address.
The subnet mask does not allow enough host addresses in a single subnet.
22. An IP network address has been subnetted so that every subnetwork has 14 usable host IP addresses. What is the appropriate subnet mask for the newly created subnetworks?
255.255.255.128
255.255.255.224
* 255.255.255.240
255.255.255.248
255.255.255.252
23. Which statements describe Layer 2 and Layer 3 packet address changes as the packet traverses from router to router? (Choose two.)
Layer 3 header is removed and replaced at every Layer 3 device.
Layer 2 and Layer 3 addresses do not change when the packet traverse.
* Layer 3 source and destination addresses do not change when the packet traverse.
* Layer 2 frame header and trailer are removed and replaced at every Layer 3 device.
Layer 2 source and destination addresses do not change when the packet travels.
24. Company XYZ uses a network address of 192.168.4.0. It uses the mask of 255.255.255.224 to create subnets. What is the maximum number of usable hosts in each subnet?
6
14
* 30
62
25. Given a host with the IP address 172.32.65.13 and a default subnet mask, to which network does the host belong?
172.32.65.0
172.32.65.32
* 172.32.0.0
172.32.32.0
Chap 11
1. What three pieces of information does the transport layer use to manage the communication of separate data streams between hosts? (Choose three.)
* port numbers
checksum values
authentication keys
* sequence numbers
encryption algorithms
* acknowledgment numbers
2. TCP is referred to as connection-oriented. What does this mean?
TCP uses only LAN connections.
TCP requires devices to be directly connected.
* TCP negotiates a session for data transfer between hosts.
TCP reassembles the data steams in the order that it is received.
3. FTP provides a reliable, connection-oriented service for transferring of files. Which transport layer protocol is used for data transfer when this service is being used?
TFTP
* TCP
DNS
IP
UDP
4. An application is using a protocol that exchanges data without using windowing or flow control and must rely on higher layer protocols to transmit data. Which protocol and transfer method are being used?
UDP, connection-oriented
* UDP, connectionless
TCP, connection-oriented
TCP, connectionless
5. Which Application layer protocol is widely used to support resolving host names to IP addresses?
FTP
SMTP
SNMP
* DNS
HTTP
WWW
6. What does the http portion of the URL http://www.cisco.com/edu/ communicate to a web browser?
The web browser needs to locate the www server.
The address is located on a site whose name is http.
* The web browser is notified as to which protocol to use.
The http portion represents the type of web browser that needs to be used.
7. What is the purpose of TCP/UDP port numbers?
indicate the beginning of a three-way handshake
reassemble the segments into the correct order
identify the number of data packets that may be sent without acknowledgment
* track different conversations crossing the network at the same time
8. What are the features of the User Datagram Protocol (UDP). (Choose three.)
* no guaranteed delivery of datagrams
connection-oriented
provides reliable full-duplex data transmission
* reliability provided by the application layer
* connectionless
utilizes sliding windowing techniques
9. Which protocol is used by e-mail servers to communicate with each other?
FTP
HTTP
TFTP
* SMTP
POP
SNMP
10. Which application layer protocol allows network devices to exchange management information?
SMTP
* SNMP
FTP
TFTP
EIGRP
11. Which protocol is used to transfer files from computer to computer but is considered connectionless?
FTP
* TFTP
SNMP
TCP
DHCP
12. Which layer of the OSI model can provide a connection-oriented, reliable data transfer between two hosts?
Application
Presentation
Session
* Transport
13. Which of the following are primary duties of the OSI transport layer? (Choose two.)
path determination
* end-to-end connectivity
* flow control
security control
data representation
encryption of data
14. When the receiving workstation detects an error in the data it has received, it does not acknowledge receipt of the data. The source workstation retransmits the unacknowledged data. Which layer of the OSI model supports this process of retransmission?
network
application
session
* transport
15. Which port numbers are commonly assigned for FTP use? (Choose two.)
19
* 20
* 21
22
Final
1. Which devices segment collision domains? (Choose two.)
transceiver
* router
* switch
hub
media
2. Refer to the exhibit. How many collision domains are present in the topology?
3
5
6
* 7
8
9
3. Refer to the exhibit. An instructor in the network class has given the students the network diagram and asks the students to select the appropriate network devices. The goals are to provide a collision-free LAN environment and to provide Internet connectivity. What is the correct design?
Replace Box 1 with a hub and Box 2 with a router.
Replace Box 1 with a router and Box 2 with a bridge.
* Replace Box 1 with a Layer 2 switch and Box 2 with a router.
Replace Box 1 with a router and Box 2 with a Layer 2 switch.
Replace Box 1 with a bridge and Box 2 with a Layer 2 switch.
4. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator attempts to increase the available bandwidth for workstation A by setting the NIC to full-duplex mode. After the configuration is changed, there are increased collisions and errors occurring. Why is this occurring in the network?
* The NIC is no longer detecting collisions.
The switch will not support full-duplex mode.
The hub will be continually producing a jam signal.
The cabling will not support bidirectional transmissions.
5. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is testing a connectivity issue in the network. The administrator discovers that host A cannot communicate with host B, host C, or RouterA. A ping command on host A to 127.0.0.1 succeeds. The NIC link indicator on host A is illuminated. Temporarily, the administrator removes the cable from host A and uses the LAN cable from host B to connect from host A to port 1 on the switch. While using the substitute cable, host A can communicate with host C and RouterA. At which layer of the OSI model was the problem occurring?
session
transport
network
data link
* physical
6. How many broadcast domains are shown in the diagram?
* three
four
five
six
seven
eight
7. A collision has occurred on an Ethernet network. Which three statements explain the CSMA/CD process? (Choose three.)
* After the jam signal, all transmission stops for a random period.
When the collision is detected, the hosts stop transmission immediately.
When the collision is detected, the hosts stop transmission after eight microseconds.
When the backoff period expires, the hosts involved in the collision have priority to transmit.
* When the backoff period expires, each host checks to see whether the networking media is idle and then attempts to transmit.
* When the collision is detected, the hosts continue to transmit using a jam pattern for a short time to ensure that all hosts detect the collision.
8. Which of the following devices extend a collision domain? (Choose two.)
switch
* hub
bridge
router
* repeater
9. What should a network administrator consider when migrating to Gigabit Ethernet architecture from Fast Ethernet? (Choose three.)
* Existing NICs might need to be upgraded.
* Existing switches might need to be upgraded.
Existing NICs must support half-duplex mode.
Existing UTP wiring must be replaced with fiber.
* Existing UTP must be tested for CAT 5e compatibility.
Existing network topology must support shared media.
10. Refer to the exhibit. What must be configured on Host B to allow it to communicate with the Host C? (Choose three.)
the MAC address of RTA router interface connected to Switch 1
* a unique host IP address
the IP address of Switch 1
* the default gateway address
the MAC address of Host C
* the subnet mask for the LAN
11. Which binary number is a representation of the decimal number 248?
11101000
11110100
* 11111000
11111010
12. Which type of address is 223.168.17.167/29?
host address
multicast address
* broadcast address
subnetwork address
13. Workstation A sends data to workstation B. What will have to be altered as the data passes through the router? (Choose two.)
* Layer 1 bit pattern
* Layer 2 frames
Layer 3 packets
Layer 4 segments
Layer 5 -7 data
14. Which combination of network id and subnet mask correctly identifies all IP addresses from 172.16.128.0 through 172.16.159.255?
172.16.128.0 255.255.255.224
172.16.128.0 255.255.0.0
172.16.128.0 255.255.192.0
* 172.16.128.0 255.255.224.0
172.16.128.0 255.255.255.192
15. What is the correct number of usable subnetworks and hosts for the IP network address 192.168.99.0 subnetted with a /29 mask?
6 networks / 32 hosts
14 networks / 14 hosts
* 30 networks / 6 hosts
62 networks / 2 hosts
16. Refer to the exhibit. The internetwork in the exhibit has been assigned the IP address 172.20.0.0. What would be the appropriate subnet mask to maximize the number of networks available for future growth?
255.255.224.0
255.255.240.0
255.255.248.0
* 255.255.252.0
255.255.254.0
255.255.255.0
17. A NIC of a computer has been assigned an IP address of 172.31.192.166 with a mask of 255.255.255.248. To which subnet does the IP address belong?
172.31.0.0
172.31.160.0
172.31.192.0
172.31.248.0
* 172.31.192.160
172.31.192.248
18. What are three characteristics of the TCP protocol? (Choose three.)
exchanges datagrams unreliably
is used to send IP error messages
* forces the retransmission of unacknowledged packets
* creates a virtual session between end-user applications
carries the IP address of the destination host in the TCP header
* is responsible for breaking messages into segments and reassembling them at their destination
19. A network user is using the FTP protocol to transfer data from the local host to an FTP server. The local host is also using the SNMP protocol to report the system status to the network management system. Which statement describes the communication from the host?
FTP and SNMP will use the same port number.
* FTP uses TCP to establish a session before any data is transferred.
The UDP session will reorder the SNMP data as it is received by the network management system.
The TCP protocol for the FTP transfer will use a random destination port number to the FTP server.
20. Which protocols are TCP/IP application layer protocols? (Choose two.)
UDP
* FTP
IP
* SMTP
TCP
21. Which technologies are considered to be WAN technologies? (Choose two.)
Ethernet
* DSL
Token Ring
* Frame Relay
FDDI
22. Refer to the exhibit. What is the order of the TCP/IP Protocol Data Units as data is moved as indicated through the OSI model?
data, segments, frames, packets, bits
data, packets, segments, frames, bits
* data, segments, packets, frames, bits
data, packets, frames, segments, bits
23. Refer to the exhibit. A newly hired technician has a task of terminating CAT 5 UTP cables. The network administrator visually examined the cables the technician terminated. Some of the cables have connectors as shown in the exhibit. What should the network administrator explain to the technician about the cables?
Both cables are acceptable.
* The cable in Graphic A will produce more crosstalk.
The cable in Graphic A should be used in the more critical network segments.
The cable in Graphic A is preferred because it will be easier to crimp the connector.
24. Refer to the exhibit. Which type of UTP cable should be used to connect Switch1 to Switch2?
rollover
console
* crossover
straight-through
25. When using Category 5 UTP cable, which RJ-45 pin pairs are used to exchange data between hosts on an Ethernet network?
1 and 2; 4 and 5
* 1 and 2; 3 and 6
3 and 6; 7 and 8
4 and 5; 7 and 8
26. Refer to the exhibit. Which type of cabling should be used at each of the connection points shown?
A-crossoverB- straight-throughC-straight-throughD-fiberE-straight-through
A-crossoverB-crossoverC-straight-throughD-fiberE-crossover
* A-straight-throughB-crossoverC-straight-throughD-fiberE-straight-through
A-fiberB-crossoverC-straight-throughD-crossoverE-straight-through
A-straight-throughB-crossoverC-crossoverD-fiberE-straight-through
A-crossoverB-crossoverC-straight-throughD-fiberE-straight-through
27. Refer to the exhibit. What type of cable connects the two routers together without any intermediary device?
console
rollover
* crossover
straight-through
28. Which cable diagram displays the end to end pinout for a console cable used with Cisco devices?
Cable A
* Cable B
Cable C
Cable D
29. Which subnet masks would be valid for a subnetted Class B address? (Choose two.)
255.0.0.0
255.254.0.0
255.224.0.0
255.255.0.0
* 255.255.252.0
* 255.255.255.192
30. What type of routing is it when the network administrator manually configures a route?
* static
dynamic
interior
exterior
31. Which statement describes a star topology?
Each host in the network is connected to a backbone cable that is terminated at both ends.
* Each host is connected to a hub or switch, either of which acts as a central point for all network connections.
Each host is directly connected to two other hosts to form a long chain of hosts.
Each host has a connection to all other hosts in the network.
32. Refer to the exhibit. The connections in the exhibit are labeled A through E. Which of these indicate WAN links? (Choose three.)
link A
* link B
* link C
* link D
link E
33. A technician needs to connect a FastEthernet port from a router to a FastEthernet port on a switch. The graphic shows the RJ-45 cable ends for a patch cable. What result can be expected if this cable is used for the link?
* The cable will be able to pass traffic between the devices.
The cable has reversed-pairs, which will degrade the signal quality.
The cable has split-pairs, which will increase crosstalk and create an unreliable link.
The cable has all the wires reversed, which will prevent the link lights from indicating that there is link.
34. Refer to the received frame in the exhibit. In what two ways is the information from the received frame used by a switch? (Choose two.)
192.168.10.5 is used to create an ARP request.
192.168.10.5 is used to build the forwarding table.
1234.5678.1abc is stripped from the frame header.
* 192.168.10.11 is left intact as the frame is forwarded.
The switch compares 192.168.10.11 to the addresses in the routing table to make the forwarding decision.
* To make the forwarding decision, the switch looks in its switch table for address aaaa.bbbb.cccc.
35. Which layer of the OSI model defines the process of adding the source and destination IP address to a data packet?
transport
* network
data link
physical
36. Refer to the exhibit. Workstation 1 pings the Fa0/1 interface of Router 1. Which MAC address will workstation 1 obtain during the ARP request for this communication?
00-06-5B-88-DF-C3
00-B0-D0-7F-F7-46
00-0F-24-85-75-C0
00-0B-E5-64-BD-44
* 00-08-A3-B6-CE-02
00-08-A3-B6-CE-03
37. Refer to the exhibit. What device does Device X represent in the graphic to allow PC1 to ping PC4?
hub
* router
bridge
access point
Layer 2 switch
38. When the receiving workstation detects an error in the data it has received, it does not acknowledge receipt of the data. The source workstation retransmits the unacknowledged data. Which layer of the OSI model supports this process of retransmission?
network
application
session
* transport
39. A company has the following addressing scheme requirements: -currently has 25 subnets -uses a Class B IP address -has a maximum of 300 computers on any network segment -needs to leave the fewest unused addresses in each subnetWhat subnet mask is appropriate to use in this company?
255.255.240.0
255.255.248.0
* 255.255.254.0
255.255.255.0
255.255.255.128
255.255.255.248
40. What can be verified by successfully pinging the reserved loopback address on a host?
Connectivity exists between two hosts on the LAN.
* The TCP/IP stack of the local host is installed correctly.
A connection exists between a host and the default gateway.
The route a packet takes from the local host to a remote host is valid.
41. Refer to the exhibit. A company needs to attach workstation E at a point 150 meters from an existing hub. What device should be placed at location D to allow the new host to connect to the network with the least amount of latency?
router
switch
bridge
* repeater
42. Refer to the exhibit. Which type of Category 5 cable is used to make an Ethernet connection between Host A and Host B?
coax cable
rollover cable
* crossover cable
straight-through cable
43. A simplified CAM table for Switch1 is shown in the exhibit. If host A sends a frame with a destination MAC address of 66C, how does the switch process this frame?
The switch drops the frame.
The switch sends the frame out port 3.
The switch sends the frame out ports 1, 2, and 4.
* The switch sends the frame out ports 2, 3, and 4.
The switch sends the frame out ports 1, 2, 3, and 4.
44. Which of the following increases the potential for a collision to occur?
the use of an active hub instead of an intelligent hub
the use of an intelligent hub instead of an active hub
a reduction in the number of devices attached to the hub
* an increase in the number of devices attached to the hub
45. Refer to the exhibit. Host A has been added to the network. However, host A cannot communicate with the server B or the Internet. All cables have been tested and are functioning to standards. At which layer of the OSI model is this problem occurring?
Layer 1
Layer 2
* Layer 3
Layer 4
46. A workstation is browsing a web server. What will be the partial contents of the segment sent from the workstation to the web server?
* Gambar 1
Gambar 2
Gambar 3
Gambar 4
47. Refer to the exhibit. What is the purpose of the highlighted address?
* It allows the NIC to communicate with other devices on the same network.
It identifies which part of the IP address is to be considered the network portion.
It provides an address to which all packets that do not have a specific route are sent.
It uniquely identifies the NIC to the free token that is passed on the Ethernet network.
48. Refer to the exhibit. Host A is being manually configured for connectivity to the LAN. Which two addressing scheme combinations are possible configurations that can be applied to the host for connectivity? (Choose two.)
Address - 192.168.1.14 Gateway - 192.168.1.33
Address - 192.168.1.45 Gateway - 192.168.1.33
Address - 192.168.1.32 Gateway - 192.168.1.33
* Address - 192.168.1.82 Gateway - 192.168.1.65
Address - 192.168.1.63 Gateway - 192.168.1.65
* Address - 192.168.1.70 Gateway - 192.168.1.65
49. A user initiates three simultaneous FTP connections from the local host to the same FTP server. Which OSI layer is responsible for establishing and managing these different FTP connections?
application
* session
transport
network
data link
Practice Final
1. Convert the binary number 10111010 into its hexadecimal equivalent. Select the correct answer from the list below.
85
90
* BA
A1
B3
1C
2. Convert the Hexadecimal number A2 into its Base 10 equivalent. Select the correct answer from the list below.
156
158
160
* 162
164
166
3. Select the necessary information that is required to compute the estimated time it would take to transfer data from one location to another. (Choose two.)
* file size
data format
network in use
type of medium
* bandwidth of the link
4. Using the data transfer calculation T=S/BW, how long would it take a 4MB file to be sent over a 1.5Mbps connection?
52.2 seconds
* 21.3 seconds
6.4 seconds
2 seconds
0.075 seconds
0.0375 seconds
5. What are features of the TCP/IP Transport layer? (Choose two.)
path determination
handles representation, encoding and dialog control
* uses TCP and UDP protocols
packet switching
* reliability, flow control and error correction
6. Which combinations of charges will be repelled by electric force? (Choose two.)
neutral and neutral
neutral and positive
neutral and negative
* positive and positive
positive and negative
* negative and negative
7. Which of the following are considered the best electrical conductors for use in data network communications? (Choose three.)
glass fibers
* copper
* gold
plastic
silicon
* silver
8. During cable testing, which of the following are used to calculate the information carrying capacity of a data cable? (Choose two.)
bit speed
* attenuation
wire map
saturation limit
* analog bandwidth
9. The highest capacity Ethernet technologies should be implemented in which areas of a network? (Choose three.)
between workstation and backbone switch
between individual workstations
* between backbone switches
* between enterprise server and switch
* on aggregate access links
10. What device must be used between an AUI port of a networking device and the media to which it is being connected?
a transducer
a transmitter
* a transceiver
a transponder
a port replicator
11. An ISDN Basic Rate Interface (BRI) is composed of how many signaling channels?
* 1
2
3
4
12. Which of the following does 1000BASE-T use to accomplish gigabit speeds on Cat 5e cable?
the use of four conductors in full-duplex mode
the use of two multiplexed pairs of wires, simultaneously
the use of three pairs of wires for data and the fourth for stabilization and forward error correction
* the use of all four pairs of wires in full-duplex mode, simultaneously
13. Which of the following items are common to all 100BASE technologies? (Choose three.)
* frame format
media
connectors
* timing
* multi-part encoding
14. For which of the following is Ethernet considered the standard? (Choose three.)
* inter-building connection
mid-length voice
video conferencing
* vertical wiring
* horizontal wiring
diagonal wiring
15. John has been hired as the network administrator of a local company and has decided to add more hubs to the company's existing network. Which of the following has been caused by John's inexperience?
* collision domain extended
an increased number of collision domains
increased network performance
increased bandwidth
extended bandwidth
16. "CompA" is trying to locate a new computer named "CompB" on the network. Which of the following does "CompA" broadcast to find the MAC address of "CompB"?
MAC request
* ARP request
ping
Telnet
proxy ARP
17. Which of the following is a term associated with replacing hubs with switches to increase the number of collision domains?
encapsulation
latency
* segmentation
layered model
broadcast domain
extended
18. The accumulation of traffic from which of the following can cause a network condition called broadcast radiation? (Choose three.)
anonymous FTP servers
telnet sessions
* video over IP applications
NAS services
* ARP requests
* RIP updates
19. Which of the following describes the use of Spanning Tree Protocol (STP)?
resolve routing loops
eliminate Split Horizon errors
limit collisions
* resolve switching loops
20. Which term describes an ARP response by a router on behalf of a requesting host?
ARP
RARP
* Proxy ARP
Proxy RARP
21. Which OSI layer encapsulates data into packets?
session
transport
* network
data link
22. Which OSI layer defines the functions of a router?
physical
data link
* network
transport
session
23. A company with a Class B license needs to have a minimum of 1,000 subnets with each subnet capable of accommodating 50 hosts. Which mask below is the appropriate one?
255.255.0.0
255.255.240.0
255.255.255.0
* 255.255.255.192
255.255.255.224
24. Which layer of the OSI model covers physical media?
* Layer 1
Layer 2
Layer 3
Layer 4
Layer 5
Layer 6
25. A small company has a class C network license and needs to create five usable subnets, each subnet capable of accommodating at least 20 hosts. Which of the following is the appropriate subnet mask?
255.255.255.0
255.255.255.192
* 255.255.255.224
255.255.255.240
26. When a network administrator applies the subnet mask 255.255.255.248 to a Class A address, for any given subnet, how many IP addresses are available to be assigned to devices?
1022
510
254
126
30
* 6
27. If a network administrator needed to download files from a remote server, which protocols could the administrator use to remotely access those files? (Choose two.)
ASCII
* TFTP
IMAP
* FTP
UDP
28. What is established during a connection-oriented file transfer between computers? (Choose two.)
a temporary connection to establish authentication of hosts
* a connection used for ASCII or binary mode data transfer
a connection used to provide the tunnel through which file headers are transported
a command connection which allows the transfer of multiple commands directly to the remote server system
* a control connection between the client and server
29. Which of the following protocols are used for e-mail transfer between clients and servers? (Choose three.)
TFTP
SNMP
* POP3
* SMTP
* IMAP4
postoffice
30. What type of wiring problem is depicted in this sample of a cable tester?
a fault
a short
* an open
a split
a good map
41. What type of network cable is used between a terminal and a console port?
cross-over
straight-through
* rollover
patch cable
42. What does the "10" in 10Base2 indicate about this version of Ethernet?
The version uses Base10 numbering within the frames.
* The version operates at a transmission rate of 10 Mbps.
Frames can travel 10 meters unrepeated.
The maximum frame length is 10 octets.
43. How is a MAC address represented?
four groups of eight binary digits separated by a decimal point
four Base10 digits separated by a decimal point
six hexadecimal digits
* twelve hexadecimal digits
twenty-four Base10 digits
44. To make sure timing limitations are not violated when implementing a 10 Mbps Ethernet network involving hubs or repeaters, a technician should adhere to which rule?
the 4-5-3 rule
the 6-4-2 rule
the 3-4-5 rule
* the 5-4-3 rule
45. Which of the following wireless standards increased transmission capabilities to 11 Mbps?
802.11a
* 802.11b
802.11c
802.11d
46. Which protocol functions at the internet layer of the TCP/IP protocol suite?
File Transfer Protocol (FTP)
Trivial File Transfer Protocol (TFTP)
Transmission Control Protocol (TCP)
* Internet Protocol (IP)
User Datagram Protocol (UDP)
Simple Mail Transport Protocol (SMTP)
47. Which of these workstation installation and setup tasks are concerned with network access layer functions? (Choose two.)
configuring the e-mail client
* installing NIC drivers
configuring IP network settings
* connecting the network cable
using FTP to download application software updates
48. Which part of an IP address identifies a specific device on a network?
first two octets
third and fourth octets
network portion
* host portion
only the fourth octet
49. Which of the following are features of the Internet Protocol (IP)? (Choose two.)
* It is the most widely implemented global addressing scheme.
It allows two hosts to share a single address on a local area network.
* It is a hierarchical addressing scheme allowing addresses to be grouped.
It is only locally significant, used primarily on local area networks.
50. In a new network installation, the network administrator has decided to use a medium that is not affected by electrical noise. Which cable type will best meet this standard?
coaxial
screened twisted pair
shielded twisted pair
unshielded twisted pair
* fiber optic
51. What is the recommended maximum number of workstations configured on a peer-to-peer network?
25
15
* 10
5
2
52. What is the maximum distance that 10BASE-T will transmit data before signal attenuation affects the data delivery?
* 100 meters
185 meters
300 meters
500 meters
53. Which type of institution does the domain suffix .org represent?
government
education
network
* non-profit
54. Which of the following services is used to translate a web address into an IP address?
* DNS
WINS
DHCP
Telnet
55. Which part of the URL http://www.awsb.ca/teacher gives the name of the domain?
www
http://
/teacher
* awsb.ca
56. Which of the following will test the internal loopback of a node?
ping 10.10.10.1
ping 192.168.1.1
* ping 127.0.0.1
ping 223.223.223.223
ping 255.255.255.255
57. Which of the following is the Layer 4 PDU?
bit
frame
packet
* segment
58. Which of the following are small, discrete components found within a personal computer? (Choose three.)
* transistor
microprocessor
power supply
* capacitor
* light emitting diode
hard disk
59. What is important to remember about the data link layer of the OSI model when considering Peer to Peer communication? (Choose three.)
It links data to the transport layer.
It encapsulates frames into packets.
* It provides a service to the network layer.
* It encapsulates the network layer information into a frame.
* Its header contains a physical address which is required to complete the data link functions.
It encodes the data link frame into a pattern of 1s and 0s (bits) for transmission on the medium.
60. Which of the following are useable Class A IP addresses with a default subnet mask? (Choose three.)
127.0.39.1
* 111.9.28.30
* 123.1.2.132
128.50.38.2
* 105.1.34.1
0.23.92.3
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